Sunday, 18 March 2012

FINANCIAL MANAGEMENT –MODEL QUESTIONS


                      FINANCIAL MANAGEMENT –MODEL QUESTIONS

                                    SUBJECT CODE: MB0029

                                       SECOND SEMESTER

                                      SECTION A     - 1 MARK

1.  Goal of financial management is ………..of economic welfare
    A.   Nationalization
    B.   Maximization
    C.   Minimization
    D.   Normalization

2.  The core of modern financial management is procurement of least cost funds and its effective
    utilization. It is more____________ in nature:
    A.  Geometrical
    B.  Analytical
    C.   Practical
    D.  Theoretical

3.  Investment decision is  also known as
    A.  Capital decision
    B.   Profit decision
    C.  Capital budgeting decision
    D.  Working capital decision

4.  Rate of return required by investor is  normally known as:
    A.   Coupon rate
    B.   Market rate
    C.   Hurdle rate
    D.   Risk-free rate

5.  Long term external borrowings are known as
    A.  Winning capital
    B.  Share capital
    C.  Working capital
    D.   Debt capital

6.  Time value of money is also known as………………..  of money
    A.  Time preference
    B.  Time difference
    C.  Time occurrence
     D.   None 

7.   Time value of money is generally expressed as: 
     A.   Dividend rate 
     B.   Profitable  rate 
     C.  Sales   rate 
     D.   Interest rate 

8.   Calculation of principal amount and compound interest is 
     A.   P (l + r)٨n 
     B.   P (I + r ) 
     C.   P (l - r) 
     D.   I + r/p 

9.   Formula to calculate future value is. 
     A.   PV I+ r 
     B.   PV( l +r ) 
     C.   PV ( l -r) 
     D.   PV ( l + r)٨n 

10.  Doubling period concept refers to. 
     A.  Time Period 
     B.  Conversion period 
     C.   Money period 
     D.  Convenient period 

11.  If the rate of interest is 5 %, the Rule 72 is applied as. 
     A.  72/5 
     B.  5/72 
     C.  72*5 
     D.   None 

12. The ……….  of PV annuity factor is called capital recovery factor 
     A.   Reciprocal 
     B.   Double 
     C.  Triple 
     D.   None 

13. A rupee received today has ………value than received a year later 
     A.  Constant 
     B.   Less 
     C.   More 
    D.   None 

14. Ordinary shares are known as: 
    A.   Equity 
    B.   Preference 
    C.   Private equity 
    D.   Preferential allotment 

15. Assets are recorded at ……….cost 
    A.   Future 
    B.   Present 
    C.   Historical 
    D.  Temporal 

16. Zero coupon bonds are issued at ……….to the face value 
    A.   Discount 
    B.   Premium 
    C.   Par 
    D.   Discount and redeemed at par 

17.  If the coupon rate is Rs. 80 and market price is Rs. 920, the current yield is 
    A.   7.8% 
    B.   8.7% 
    C.   8.8% 
    D.   8.9% 

18. Cost of capital is minimum: 
    A.   Required rate of return 
    B.   Rate of risk 
    C.   Rate of growth 
    D.   Rate of investment 

19. Cost of debenture is the………….  Rate 
    A.   Dividend 
    B.   Interest 
    C.   Discount 
    D.   Market 

 20.   Term loans have…………interest rate 

     A.   Floating 

      B.  Pre-determined fixed 
  C.   Zero 

  D.   None 

21.  Under dividend forecast approach……….  is important 

    A.   Intrinsic value 

     B.  Book value 

    C.   Par value 

     D.  None 

22. The formula for retained earnings is  ……….. 

    A.   Kr = Ke 

     B.  Kr > Ke 

    C.   Kr < Ke 

     D.  None 

23.  Capital structure is …………………………….plan 

    A.   Financial 

     B.  Operating 

    C.   Budgeting 

     D.  Costing 

24.  Proper mix of funds is referred to as……….capital structure 

    A.   Minimal 

     B.  Optimal 

    C.   Visual 

     D.  None 

25.  Capital Budgeting decisions are grouped with…………….. 

    A.   Cost reduction program 

     B.  Revenue generation 

    C.   Dismantling program 

     D.  Both A and B 

26. ___________appraisal is also known as social cost benefit analysis 

    A.   Commercial 

     B.  Technical 
    C.   Financial 

    D.   Economic 

27.  Pay back measures profitability of the project 

    A.   True 

    B.   False 

    C.   Not sure 

    D.   None 

28.  Incremental PAT is: 

    A.   EBIT 

    B.   Tax rate 

    C.   1-t 

    D.   EBIT (1-t) 

29.  Discounted cash flow method does not include: 

    A.   NPV 

    B.   IRR 

    C.   PI 

    D.   ARR 

30.  In portfolio risk, ______reflects the degree to which the returns of two 

    securities vary or change 

    A.   Cooperation 

    B.   Coordination 

    C.   Standard deviation 

    D.   Covariance 

31.  Imposing constraints on the total size of its capital budgeting is 

    capital………….. 

    A.   Positioning 

    B.   Pioneering 

    C.   Rationing 

    D.   Recovering 

32.  Under capital rationing, a firm is under the ………. of funds 

    A.   Restraint 
     B.  Constraint 

     C.  Abundant 

     D.  None 

33.  External capital rationing is due to …. of capital market 

    A.   Imperfection 

     B.  Injection 

     C.  Insulation 

     D.  Indigestion 

34.  Under capital rationing, investment proposals are ranked on……….. 

    A.   Subjective judgment 

     B.  Urgency 

     C.  Profitability 

     D.  Pressure/ Politics 

35.  Difference between purchase price and standard price is analyzed 

    through…………. analysis 

    A.   Vibrant 

     B.  Value 

     C.  Variable 

     D.  Variance 

36.  In FIFO, goods received first are used 

    A.   Last 

     B.  Least 

     C.  First 

     D.  Second 

37. When projects are not divisible …………... can be employed . 

    A.   Integrated programming 

     B.  Internal programming 

     C.  Integer programming 

     D.  Inclusive programming 

38. When goods sold on credit, finished goods get converted into……… 

    A.   Payables 
          
       B.  Stock 

        C.  Receivables 

        D.  Cash 

    39.  Receivables form part of …………assets 

        A.  Fixed 

        B.  Intangible 

        C.  Current 

        D.  Fictitious 

    40. When the customer fails to pay his dues on the expiry date the costs 

        incurred by the firm is known as 

        A.  Delinquency 

        B.  Adequacy 

        C.  Normal 

        D.  Abnormal 

                                       SECTION – B (2 marks) 

1.   Finance is the life blood of an organization. It embraces all managerial activities that aim at: 

    A.   Procurement of funds at least cost. 

     B.  Working capital management 

    C.    Effective deployment of funds 

     D.  Both A and C 

2.   Maximization of economic welfare means maximization of _________ 

    A.   Profits 

     B.  Fixed and current assets 

    C.   Shareholder’s wealth 

     D.  Both A and B 

3.  Any project which generates ………..  creates wealth 

    A.   Positive net present value 

     B.  Possessive net present value 

    C.   Preventive net present value 

     D.  Possible net present value 

4.   Financial planning deals with: 
     A.   Financial requirement 

     B.   Financial disbursement 

     C.   Financial allotment 

     D.   None 

5.    Sources of finance is grouped into: 

     A.   Debt and equity 

     B.   Debt and cash 

     C.   Debt and profit 

     D.   Profit and reserves 

6.   Zero time period refers to ………………….investment period 

     A.   Initial 

     B.   Potential 

     C.   Perennial 

     D.   None 

7.   Net worth is 

     A.   Paid-up capital 

     B.   Paid-up capital + reserves 

     C.   Paid-up capital – reserves 

     D.   Paid-up capital +reserves + debt capital 

8.   Book value of share is 

     A.   Net worth /outstanding equity shares 

     B.   Market value  / outstanding equity shares 

     C.   Market value - Net worth / outstanding equity shares 

     D.   Net worth  / all  outstanding shares 

9.   Zero coupon bonds carry : 

     A.   Coupon rate of interest 

     B.   Risk free rate of interest 

     C.   Risk free rate + risk premium rate 

     D.   No coupon rate 

10. Variable cost vary in direct ……….  to output 

     A.   Proportion 
   
     B.   Ratio 

    C.   Percentile 

    D.   None 

11.  Financial leverage is also known as trading  on 

    A.   Debt 

    B.   Equity 

    C.   Preference 

    D.   Debt and Preference 

12. Value of debt is: 

    A.   B=I/kd 

    B.   B= I 

    C.   B=I*kd 

    D.   None 

13. ________is based on accounting information 

    A.   Pay back period 

    B.   Accounting rate of return 

    C.   Discounted pay back period 

    D.   Net present value 

14. CE is expanded as………… 

    A.   Certainty efficiency 

    B.   Certainty exemption 

    C.   Certainty  elimination 

    D.   Certainty equivalent 

15.  Initial cash outlay Rs. 10 Lakhs , two years cash inflows Rs. 5 and Rs. 3 lakhs , respectively  the 

    recovery rate of initial cash outlay is……………….. 

    A.   10% 

    B.   20% 

    C.   50% 

    D.   80% 

16.  Under capital rationing, projects are……………. 

    A.   Prioritized 

    B.   Privatized 
   
 C.   Prototype 

    D.   None 

17.  Under capital rationing it is difficult to generate ………... Fund 

    A.   Additional 

    B.   Temporary 

    C.   Private equity 

    D.   Debt 

18. While ranking the projects for investment proposal, descending order is adopted for………………. 

    A.   Profitability index 

    B.   Probability index 

    C.   Proficiency index 

    D.   Possibility index 

19. Cash is a …………….asset 

    A.   Fixed 

    B.   Current 

    C.   Intangible 

    D.   Fictitious 

20.  In managing cash flow, speed up ……..and slow down………of cash 

    A.   Inflow , outflow 

    B.   Outflow, inflow 

    C.   Reserve, bad debts 

    D.   Income , Expenses 

                              SECTION –C  (4 MARKS) 

1.  Sales Rs. 1300, gross profit is Rs. 520 increase in sale is 30%, the cost is 

         A.  Rs.1014 

         B.  Rs.1041 

         C.  Rs.1004 

         D.  None 

2.   Value of fixed asset opening Rs. 100 and closing Rs. 200, the depreciation at 20% is 
         A.  Rs.20 

         B.  Rs.40 

         C.  Rs.60 

         D.  Rs.80 

3.    Mr. X found that the end of third year, he has Rs. 1157.63 in his bank account, the rate allowed 

    by the bank is 5%  compounded annually , What is the amount deposited ? 

         A.  Rs.1600 

         B.  Rs.1500 

         C.  Rs.1000 

         D.  Rs.1050 

4.    Given that rate of interest is 10% p.a  applying the Rule 69, the number of years is: 

         A.  2.7 

         B.  2.8 

         C.  7.2 

         D.  7.25 

5.  Cash flows for 3 years are Rs. 20,000 each, discount rate is 10% , the value of asset is 

         A.  Rs. 44,970 

         B.  Rs. 49,470 

         C.  Rs. 47,940 

         D.  Rs. 40,940 

6.  Face value of a bond Rs. 100, coupon rate 12% maturity period 5 years, interest rate 10% , value 

    of bond is : 

         A.  Rs.  701.59 

         B.  Rs. 105.79 

         C.  Rs. 105.90 

         D.  Rs. 107.59 

7.   Par value of debenture  Rs. 100, interest rate 15% p.a , redemption after 8 years at 8% premium 

    Corporate tax 50 % , new issue is priced at 3% discount , the cost of debenture is: 
        A.   4.8% 

         B.  5.1% 

         C.  5.2% 

         D.  8.4% 

8.   Face value of preference share is Rs.100 , dividend rate 12%, redemption after 10 years at Rs. 4 

    per share premium . The company hopes to realize Rs. 98 per share now, the         cost is: 

        A.   12.74% 

         B.  12.47% 

         C.  12.43% 

         D.  12% 

9.  Dividend per share is Rs. 2 market price of equity is Rs.32 ,growth rate    is 10% cost of capital is: 

        A.   16.52% 

         B.  16.25% 

         C.  16.00% 

         D.  16.20% 

10.  Preference shares issued in with a maturity premium of 10% and a coupon rate of 9%, face value 

    is Rs. 100 and redemption after 8 years. Issues will be made at     3 % discount . The cost of 

    preference capital is: 

        A.   10.12% 

         B.  10.75% 

         C.  10.27% 

         D.  10% 

11.  A firm sells a product for Rs. 10 per unit , variable cost Rs. 5 per unit and fixed expenses Rs. 

    5000 p.a,  find the EBIT  sale is 1000 units 

        A.   Zero 

         B.  Rs.5000 

         C.  Rs.10000 

         D.  Rs.8000 
12. Sales 1000 units , SP Rs. 300 , VC Rs. 100, the operating leverage is 

        A.   Rs.5000 

         B.  Nil 

        C.   Rs.5200 

         D.  Rs.2800 

13.  Earnings available to equity shareholders (ESH) Rs. 4050, equity shares 1000, EPS is Rs. 

        A.   4.50 

         B.  4.80 

        C.   4.05 

         D.  4.00 

14.  If an equity earnings is Rs. 80,000, cost of equity is 15%, then the market value is: 

        A.   Rs. 3,33,335 

         B.  Rs. 3,33,333 

        C.   Rs. 5,33,333 

         D.  Rs.  5,33,335 

15.  Cash outflow Rs. 4,00,000,cash inflows for 4 years  Rs. 2,00,000 , Rs. 1,75,000, Rs. 25,000 and 

    Rs. 2,00,000,  the pay back period is; 

        A.   2.67 years 

         B.  2.76 years 

        C.   2 year 

         D.  3 years 

Saturday, 17 March 2012

Production and Operations Management MODEL PAPER


                                                 MODEL PAPER

                             MB0028 Production and Operations Management

      1 mark questions

QN    Question

1     JIT refers to ___________
      a) jump in time
      b) judge in time
      c) just in time
      d) job in time

2     _____________ sets the quantity of each end item to be completed each week of the short range
planning.
      a) master production schedule
      b) quarter schedule
      c) weekly schedule
      d) basic production schedule

3     _________ is a management function whereby procurement, storage and issuance of the same for
purposes of manufacturing the products or consumption are conducted.
      a) handling material control
      b) handling equipments
      c) managing workers
      d) managing the raw materials

4     ______ are materials held at various locations in a production system.
      a) Store
      b) Godown
      c) Inventories
      d) Yard

5     ________ at every stage is necessary to derive competitive advantage.
      a) Controlling
      b) Coordinating
      c) Tasking
      d) Optimisation

6     CAD refers to : _________
      a) Computer Aided Drafting
      b) Compter Assisted Drafting
      c) Computer Aided Design
      d) Computer Automated Design

7     CIM refers to : ________
      a) Computer Integrated Machining
      b) Computer Integrated Manufacturing
      c) Compute Integrated Models
      d) Computer Integrated Mechanisms

8     ________ helps in improving identification , pick up and repacking the materials in addition to
relieving monotony of the workers.
      a) computerisation 
      b) digitization 
      c) mechnanisation 
      d) optimization 

9     The factory, the location where all the activities take place, machinery and heavy equipments are 
kept is known as ________       .; 
      a) godown 
      b) plant 
      c) industry 
      d) workshop 

10    Methodologies, technology, toolings, fixtures  - for establishing, maintaining and improving 
productivity are referred to as _____ .; 
      a) programs 
      b) tasks 
      c) duties 
      d) processes 

11    ____________ have to be established to enable the organisation to move towards leadership 
position. 
      a) Quality systems 
      b) Human resources systems 
      c) Information systems 
      d) Operations systems 

12    To achieve excellence, _________ processes are employed and international certification sought. 
      a) information 
      b) operations 
      c) quality 
      d) benchmarking 

13    ________ has become fundamental for an organization’s existence because processes involve d 
are automated and the flows cannot be interrupted. 
      a) Technologymanagement 
      b) Information systems 
      c) Production management 
      d) Assurance of quality 

14    ___________      introduced the   " science of management" 
      a) Frederick Taylor 
      b) Peter Taylor 
      c) John Collins 
      d) Meyer Collins 

15    _________ in the banking sector has resulted in ATMs which save the banks a huge amount of 
labour and it is found to have given greater customer satisfaction. 
      a) Customization 
      b) Internet 
      c) Cost reduction 
      d) Automation 

16    CNC refers to _________ . 
      a) Controlled Network Coding 
      b) ComputerNumerical Controlled 
      c) Controlled Numerical Coding 
       d) Computerized Network Controlled 

 17    ________ are used for inspection, identification and guidance 
       a) Vision Sensors 
       b) ATMs 
       c) Scanners 
       d) OCR 

 18    ASRS refers to _______        . 
       a) Automated Statement and Reporting Systems 
       b) Automated Sensing and Repeating Systems 
       c) Automatic Sensing and Reflecting Systems 
       d) Automated Storage and Retrieval Systems 

 19    ___________ are designed so that the assembly tasks are performed in the sequence they are 
 designed. 
       a) Plant Layout 
       b) Product Layouts 
       c) Assembly Units 
       d) Production Units 

 20    In the shop floor longer runs lead to ______ and minimize the set up costs 
       a) higher productivity 
       b) higher effeciency 
       c) better utility 
       d) better management 

 21        ____________is a process where the resultant effect of all factors – both cost increasing and 
 decreasing elements in each of them – is analysed. 
       a) Feedback 
       b) Optimization 
       c) Costing 
       d) Estimation 

22       ________      means specifications of materials, finishes, characteristics and other features that are 
incorporated in the product of which the maker is aware and expects them 
 to meet the customers’ needs.   
       a) customization 
       b) characterization 
       c) specificaiton 
       d) design 

 23    The degree to which the manufactured product or delivered service meets the parameters that 
 have been incorporated in the design is referered to as ________  . 
       a) optimization 
       b) conformance 
       c) quality 
       d) maintainablity 

 24    ________ are graphical represenattaion of distribution of data. 
       a) bar graph 
       b) pie charts 
       c) histogram 
       d) frequency chart 
 25    This is a tool for classifying problem areas according to the degree of importance and attending to 
 the most important. 
       a) scatter diagram 
       b) pie chart 
       c) histogram 
       d) pareto 

 26    PDCA cycle is also known as _______ . 
       a) Pie chart 
       b) Jurangs cycle 
       c) Demings cycle 
       d) Alfreds cycle 

 27    _________ is a total response that a business undertakes utilizing resources and delivering outputs 
 that create value for the customer. 
       a) Business process 
       b) Business product 
       c) Product management 
       d) Product process 

28       _____________   refers   to   a   set   of   activities   undertaken   to   optimise   the   business   process   for 
improving their performance, deliver better value for the customer, maximize 
 the earnings and keep its head above competition. 
       a) project management 
       b) business process management 
       c) total quality management 
       d) resource management 

 29    Management is the technique of understanding the problems, needs and controlling the use of 
 resources, such as cost, time, manpower, materials, etc. 
       a) Project 
       b) PERT 
       c) CPM 
       d) Management 

 30    It consists of the various activities of operations, resources and the limitations imposed on them. 
       a) Process 
       b) Management 
       c) Project Cycle 
       d) Product 

 31    It is a part of the project which consists of simple and routine instructions to achieve a desired result 
 of any activity of the project. 
       a) Process 
       b) Management 
       c) Project Cycle 
       d) Product 

 32    This proposal    contains the strategies adopted to market the product to the customers. 
       a) Marketing 
       b) Design 
       c) Analysis 
       d) Evaluation 

 33    In this phase the project manager and the teams members work on the project objectives as per 
 the plan. 
     a) Marketing 
     b) Design 
     c) Analysis 
     d) Execution 

34    In this phase information is collected from the customer pertaining to the project and the 
requirements are analyzed. 
     a) Marketing 
     b) Design 
     c) Analysis 
     d) Execution 

35   One can find out the variance and use the variance to analyze the various probabilistic estimates 
pertaining to the project in ___ method. 
     a) CPM 
     b) PERT 
     c) CPM 
     d) ICT 

36   Assist the team members, stakeholders, managers with necessary information  and summary of the 
information shared to the higher level managers is one of the aspects of ___ . 
     a) DSS 
     b) KBS 
     c) PMIS 
     d) EIS 

37   Assists the managers in doing what if analyses about project staffing, proposed staffing changes 
and total allocation of resources is one of the aspect of ____ . 
     a) PMIS 
     b) KBS 
     c) DSS 
     d) EIS 

38   Help organizational learning by helping the members of the organization learn about project 
management is one of the aspects of ____ . 
     a) EIS 
     b) KBS 
     c) DSS 
     d) PMIS 

39   One of the objectives of ____ is enhancement of coverage and accuracy of management 
information systems. 
     a) MRS 
     b) EIS 
     c) TPS 
     d) SCM 

40   SMD represents ________ . 
     a) single model description 
     b) single machine description 
     c) simple machine description 
     d) single model deterministic 

     2 mark questions 
QN    Question 

1     Just-in-time and Lean Manufacturing  methodologies were developed to _________ the 
_________across      the organisation. 
      a) maximize ,   profits 
      b) minimize,   wastages 
      c) minimize, contributions 
      d) maximize , inventories 

2     CIM process helps in ________ and ________ . 
      a) manufacturing and packaging 
      b) maximizing profits and minimizing losses 
      c) optimising manpowwer and materials 
      d) rapid production and better business 

3     Accuracy of fulfillment of order is ensured by two basic factors : _________ and _______ . 
      a) order extent and procurement extent 
      b) procurement extent and billing extent 
      c) billing extent and tax extent 
      d) order extent and coverage extent 

4     ______ and ________ refers to information management system              which initiates, directs, monitors 
and collects feed back to enable efficient    use of all other resources. 
      a) supervision and execution 
      b) planning and control 
      c) delegation and supervision 
      d) initiation and direction 

5     With increases in ________ and _________ at all stages of the supply chain, flexibility has become 
vital to effect economies. 
      a) production and profit 
      b) revenue generation and efficiency 
      c) variety of products and reduced lead time 
      d) wastages and cost 

6     Factors influencing Plant location can be broadly divided into two types namely _______           and 
_____  . 
      a) general factors and specific factors 
      b) specific factors and specialized factors 
      c) specialized factors and utility factors 
      d) general factors and special factors 

7     The essence of planning is the determination of activities that need to be performed at a future date 
to meet demands that have been forecast based on ______ and ________ . 
      a) product characteristics and specificaiton 
      b) market surveys and forecasting 
      c) prediction models and forecasting 
      d) manpower and resource availability 

8     Strategy means _______ and _______a series of activities based on the evaluation of both internal 
and external environment, so as to maximise the yield. 
      a) planning and supplementing 
      b) implementing and coordinating 
      c) pricing and planning 
      d) evaluating and planning 

9     Working for quality awards like _______  and _________          increases efficiencies in the organisat ion 
and   builds confidence of the customers. 
      a) Deming and Pulitzer 
      b) Malcolm Balridge and Pulitzer 
      c) Deming and Malcolm Baldridge 
      d) Balance Score card and Six Sigma 

10    ___________________ enables us to go into details at every stage of the process and verify the 
____________________. 
      a) process definitions, authenticity of information 
      b) business process, adequacy of data 
      c) business process, authenticity of information 
      d) process definitions, adequacy of data 

11    consider the following statements : 
i) The process in which interactions depends on the nature of work and dynamic and dependent on team 
innovations is closing process. 
Ii) the process in which the project is reviewed , findings afe reporeted and project performacne is 
analysed is executing process.. 
The statements are : 
      a) both true 
      b) both false 
      c) true and false respectively 
      d)false and true respectively. 

12    Two of the process groups are initaiting processes and controlling processes. 
i) initiating process - recognition to start and establishing commitment. 
ii) controlling processes - formalizing acceptiace and bringing project to an ordelry end. 
      The statements are - 
      a) Both are True 
      b) Both are false 
      c) true, false respectively 
      d) false , true respectively. 

13    Characteristics of project mindset are : 
i)Time – It is impossible to improve the pace of the project by reducing the time frame of the process. 
The mindset is normally to work a comfort mode by stretching the time limits. 
ii) Processes- Project mindset lays emphasis on rigid processes. 
      a) Both are True 
      b) Both are false 
      c) true, false respectively 
      d) false , true respectively. 

14    At a node 15 there are 4 predecessors. EST wrt each of the 4 predecessors is 35,32,30,31 days. 
What is the EST of the node 15? 
      a) 35 days 
      b) 32 days 
      c) 31 days 
      d) 30 days 

15    At a node 11 there are 4 successors. LCT wrt each of the 4 successors is 27,43,18,37 days. What 
is the LCT of the node 11? 
      a) 27 days 
      b) 43 days 
      c) 18 days 
      d) 37 days 
16    If tm=7days, to=1days, tp=7days what is the value of sd (standard eviation)               ? 
      a) 0 day 
      b) 1 day 
      c) 2 days 

17    DMAIS represents ___ . 
      a) define, measure, analyse, improve, standardize 
      b) define, monitor, analyse, improve, system 
      c) define, monitor, analyse, integrate, standardize 
      d) define, measure, analyse, integrate, system 

18    The agenda for a review should be well structured in terms of ___ and ___ . 
      a) time and content 
      b) content and list of participants 
      c) list of participants and time 
      d) roles and responsibilities 

19    The team should  exhibit better control of their project ____ and then demonstrate better control 
about business ____ . 
      a) prospects, growth 
      b) portfolio, profitability 
      c) portfolio, prospects 
      d) prospects, expandability 

20    Success of JIT depends upon a lot of ________ and _______. 
      a) preparation and committed implementation 
      b) teamwork and technology 
      c) cooperation and effort 
      d) information technology and planning 

      4 mark questions 

QN    Question 

1     Prodcution planning functions can be broadly identified as ______               , _______    and _______ . 
      a) estimating , routing , distribution 
      b) estimating , routing , scheduling 
      c) estimating, distribution, collection 
      d) distribution, collection, scheduling 

2     For efficient process of order picking by personnel, communication plays a vital role in any 
organisation and the directives they need to have are ____ , _____ and _______ . 
      a) simple, clear and straight 
      b) straight, clear and easy 
      c) precise, timely and appropriate 
      d) accurate , timely and sufficient 

3     The three major functions of any business organization are _______ , _______ and ______ . 
      a) coordinating, organizing, delegating 
      b) organizing, supervising, executing 
      c) controlling, manning, procuring 
      d) operations, marketing, finance 

 4     Formulation of the strategy depends on the _________ . 
       a) assessments of strengths, understanding of the weaknesses, the nature of external environment 
 and the resilience of the internal environment. 
       b) understanding strategies, formulation of plans, utilization of resources, enabling oppurtunities 
       c) resilience of internal environment, resilience of external environment, understanding strategies, 
 enablling oppurtunitites 
       d) decision making abilities, strategizing the actions, preparation of master plan, resource planning 

 5     Match the following : 
 P)market analysis                 x) needs assessment 
 Q)competitive priorities        y) design analysis 
 R)product design                  z) cost quality 
 Which of the following is correct ? 
       a) P-X, Q-Y, R-Z 
       b) P-X, Q-Z, R-Y 
       c) P-Y, Q-Z, R-X 
       d) P-Z, Q-Y, R-X 

 6     All operation systems are based on criteria  of _____ , ______ and _____ . 
       a) output of product , specification of product and flow pattern 
       b) input of product, characteristics of product and prices 
       c) quality of services, operations and input of product 
       d) decision making ability, input of product and output of product 

 7     Consider the following statements : 
 P) . Evaluation is done for the processes and quality assurance measures. 
 Q)  Sometimes suppliers are given total responsibility for design, procurement of materials, processing, 
 quality and deliveries as per schedules. 
 which of the following is correct ? 
       a) Both are true 
       b) Both are false 
       c) true and false respectively 
       d) false and true respectively. 

 8     The method  used mainly where transportation costs either for distribution of products or collection 
 of materials from different suppliers is the main criteria. 
       a) Centre of gravity method 
       b) Break even analysis 
       c) Point rating method 
       d) Factor rating method 

 9     PDCA stands for ________ . 
       a) Prepare, Develop, Control , Act 
       b) Plan , Develop, Coordinate, Analyze 
       c) Product, Devleopment, Cost, Analyze 
       d) Plan , Do , Check, Act 

10       caselet : small projects, big results 
Small projects may not be as glamorous or prestigious as their larger counterparts, but they're still 
important and still require project management. The most common mistake people make when 

executing small projects is thinking that because of the small amount of effort required, the project doesn't 
need planning at all, says Roberta Toledo, PMP, managing partner at Alpha Consultoria, 

 a project management consultancy in Mexico City, Mexico. Project managers who opt to cut back on 
project management principles run several risks, says Margo O'Farrell, a teacher of project 
management at TAFE Tasmania, a training organization in Tasmania, Australia. First, if the project 
manager becomes ill or otherwise unavailable, the project will probably come screaming 

to a halt. Failing to apply project management principles can also result in a lack of executive 
commitment, O'Farrell says. A project manager's reputation may be at stake, too. Even when 

a project is relatively small, the objective can be substantive. The amount of planning and process should 
be proportional to the project's scope. 
Finally, once the project is underway,      project managers must find ways to keep team members focused 
on 

 the goal-which can be particularly tricky on small projects. 

In the above description, which main principles of project management are being focused upon? 

 (source: Karen M Kroll. PM Network. Drexel Hill: Jul 2007. Vol. 21, Iss. 7) 

       a) features and cost 
       b) quality and schedule 
       c) cost  and quality 
       d) schedule and staff 

 11    In the analysis and evaluation phase, the following two are - 
       i) Trade Off Analysis - To analyze whether the project is technically, economically and practically 
 feasible to be undertaken. 
       ii) Feasibility study: To understand and examine the various alternatives which could be considered 
       Which of the following is correct? 
       a) Both are true 
       b) Both are false 
       c) true and false respectively 
       d) false and true respectively. 

 12    In the analysis and evaluation phase, the following two are - 
       i) Project Evaluation :   Evaluate expected profit, cost and risks involved. 
       ii) Estimation : Estimate the project cost, effort required and functionality. 
       Which of the following is correct? 
       a) Both are true 
       b) Both are false 
       c)true and false respectively 
       d) false and true respectively. 

 13    Match the following: 
 (p) analyse         (x)design of experiments, modeling 
 (q) improve          (y)cause and effect, failure modes, reliablity, decsion and risk 
 (r)standardize      (z)control charts, time series, procedural adherence, performance mgmt. 
 Which of the following is correct? 
       a) p-x, q-y, r-z 
       b) p-y, q-x, r-z 
       c) p-z, q-y, r-y 
       d) p-z, q-x, r-y 

14    Match the following: 
(p) analyse           (x)data collection, detect metrics, sampling 
(q) improve           (y)cause and effect, failure modes, reliablity, decsion and risk 
(r) measure          (z)design of experiments, modeling 
Which of the following is correct? 
      a) p-y, q-z, r-x 
      b) p-y, q-x, r-z 
      c) p-z, q-y, r-y 
      d) p-z, q-x, r-y 

15    Manufacturing flexibility has three dimensions namely : ____ , _____ and _______ . 
      a) logistics, cost and variety 
      b) location, movement, volume 
      c) variety , volume and time 
      d) logistics , location, time 

Friday, 16 March 2012

Marketing Management MODEL PAPER


              Model Question Paper 

Subject: Marketing Management                                  Subject code: MB 0030.

Total Time: 2 hours                                            Total Marks: 140

Notes:

1. Question paper is divided into three parts i.e. Part A, Part B, and Part C.

2. Part A consist 40 questions of one mark each

3. Part B consist 20 questions of 2 marks each.

4. Part C consist 15 questions of 4 marks each.

5. All questions are compulsory

                                   PART A (One mark questions)

1.      The market in large town catering to the needs of villages and towns is known as---------

        a.      Local market

        b.      Regional market

        c.      National market

        d.      Global market

2.      Objective of --------- concept is profit through customer satisfaction

        a.      Production concept

        b.      Product concept

        c.      Selling concept

        d.      Marketing concept

3.      Which one of the following model is known as growth share matrix?

        a.      BCG matrix
        b.      Henry Assael model 

        c.      GE matrix 

        d.      Ansoff model 

4.      Valuable competencies, physical assets and human assets represent companies ’ 

        a.      Strengths 

        b.      Weaknesses 

        c.      Opportunities 

        d.      Threats 

5.      The example of macro environment is 

        a.      Supply chain 

        b.      competitor 

        c.      customer 

        d.      natural  resources 

6.      People for ethical treatment of animals is -------- type of publics 

        a.      Financial publics 

        b.      media publics 

        c.      citizen action groups 

        d.      Internal publics 

7.      Marketing research process starts with 

        a.      developing the research plan 

        b.      defining the problem 

        c.      collecting the information 

        d.      present the findings 

8.      Mall intercept method is 

        a.      asking the people to shop in mall. 
        b.      training customer how to pick goods in mall 

        c.       Interviewing the people in shopping mall 

        d.      Promotion by shopping mall owner 

9.      ----------------- is the combination of customs, beliefs, and values of consumers in a 
particular nation. 

        a.       Culture 

        b.      Subculture 

        c.       Social class 

        d.      Global factors 

10.     Which of the following social class category is considered as below poverty line 

        a.      Deprived 

        b.      Aspires 

        c.      Seekers 

        d.      Strivers 

11.     ------------- is the highest need in the Maslow hierarchy 

        a.      Self actualization 

        b.      Safety 

        c.      Physiological 

        d.      Esteem 

12.     Which of the following is driven from Freudian Psychology? 

        a.      The economic model 

        b.      The learning model 

        c.      The psychoanalytical model 

        d.      The sociological model 

13.     Value analysis is done in the ----------stage of business buying process 
        a.       Need description 

        b.       Product specification 

        c.       Supplier search 

        d.       Proposal solicitation. 

14.     Comparing the buying situations against the stages in buying process is called as 

        a.       Buyer black box model 

        b.       Henry assael model 

        c.       Business buying process 

        d.       Buy grid model 

15.     ------------is the starting step in applying the marketing strategy 

        a.        Segmentation 

        b.       Positioning 

        c.       targeting 

        d.       Marketing audit 

16.     Consumers who show no loyalty to any brand is called as 

        a.       Hard- core loyal 

        b.       Split loyal 

        c.       shifting loyal 

        d.       Switchers 

17.     Which of the following is not a type of behavioral segmentation? 

        a.       life style 

        b.        Occasions 

        c.       Benefits 

        d.       User status 
18.     Two dimensional graphs of how product, brand or company is perceived versus 
competition is known as 

        a.      Market mapping 

        b.      Positioning maps 

        c.      Consumer demographics profile 

        d.      Segment profiling 

19.     -----------is the fundamental goods or services offered to the consumer 

        a.       core product 

        b.      Generic product 

        c.      Expected product 

        d.      augmented product 

20.     Which one of the following is an example of business goods? 

        a.      convenience goods 

        b.       unsought goods 

        c.      specialty goods 

        d.      Materials and parts 

2 1.    The number of product line represents 

        a.      Product line length 

        b.      product line stretching 

        c.      Product line filling 

        d.      product line pruning 

22.     The removing of unprofitable products from the product line is called as 

        a.      Product line filling 

        b.      product line pruning 

        c.      product line length 
        d.      Product line stretching 

23.     The number of customer exposed to brand name is called as-------------- 

        a.      Brand associations 

        b.      brand loyalty 

        c.      brand awareness 

        d.      perceived quality 

24.     The strategy of coming out with new brand for new category products is called as 

        a.      Line extension 

        b.      brand extension 

        c.      Multi brands 

        d.      new brands 

25.     Reliability, responsiveness, Assurance and empathy explains 

        a.       Service differentiation 

        b.      Service quality 

        c.      Service productivity 

        d.      Service characteristics 

26      If the number of products produced increases then 

        a.      Fixed cost remain same 

        b.      variable cost remain same 

        c.       fixed cost will go down 

        d.      variable cost become negative 

27.     Break even point occurs when 

        a.      total revenue = total cost 

        b.      total revenue= fixed cost 

        c.      total revenue= variable cost 
        d.       total revenue= sunk cost 

28.     Which one of the following strategy is adopted by Wal-Mart? 

        a.       Close bid pricing 

        b.       going rate pricing 

        c.       every day low pricing 

        d.      High low pricing 

29.     A strategy in which company stocks goods in limited number of retail outlets is called 

        a.       Intensive distribution 

        b.       Selective distribution 

        c.       Exclusive distribution 

        d.       direct selling 

30.     ----------- is the process of unpacking big packets into small packets 

        a.       Sorting 

        b.      Breaking bulk 

        c.      Holding stock 

        d.       channels of communication 

31.     -------- stores sell products at low prices with low margin 

        a.      Discount store 

        b.       off price retailer 

        c.       Super store 

        d.       convenience store 

32.     Which is paid form of non personal communication? 

        a.       sale promotion 

        b.       public relation 

        c.      personal selling 
        d.       advertising 

33.     News paper report, TV presentations are-------- tools 

        a.      advertising 

        b.      personal selling 

        c.       sales promotion 

        d.      Public relations 

34.     Hoardings, billboards and posters are some of the tools used in------- media 

        a.      Print 

        b.      broad cast 

        c.      Outdoor 

        d.       Online 

35.     Quotas set on the bases of sales volumes is known as 

        a.       Sales quota 

        b.      Expense quota 

        c.      Profit quota 

        d.      Activity quota 

36.     ------------ is the first step in personal selling process 

        a.      Lead  evaluation 

        b.      lead generation 

        c.      Buyer analysis 

        d.      Order generation 

37.     Partnering in CRM involves 

        a.      Manufacturers and suppliers 

        b.      Advertising agencies 

        c.      Alliance between firm and competitors 
        d.     Alliance between firm and non profit organization 

38.     Humanistic relationship development depends on 

        a.     soft versions of SCM 

        b.     soft version of relationship marketing 

        c.     hard version of SCM 

        d.     hard version of relationship marketing 

39.     In ---------- international market entry strategy company provides know how to the 
domestic manufacturer 

        a.     Exporting 

        b.     Licensing 

        c.     contract manufacturing 

        d.     Management contracting 

40.     --------- pricing MNC moves goods between its subsidiaries in various countries 

        a.     cost based pricing 

        b.     demand based pricing 

        c.     Transfer pricing 

        d.     competition based pricing 

                                      PART B (two marks) 

41.     Cotton and textile marketed located in Mumbai is an example of ------- 

        a.     National market 

        b.     Global market 

        c.     Regional market 

        d.     Local market 

42.     Relative market share is calculated as 
        a.      Market potential/ market share of the largest competitor 

        b.      Market potential/ market share 

        c.      market share of the SBU/ market share of the largest competitor 

        d.      market share of the SBU/ Market potential of the largest competitor 

43.     The forces which are very close to company and have impact on value creation and 
customer service are known as 

        a.      political and legal environment 

        b.      social and cultural environment 

        c.      micro environment 

        d.      economic and natural environment 

44.     The process of searching through information in data warehouse to identify meaningful 
patterns that guide decision making is called as ------- 

        a.      data warehouse 

        b.      data mining 

        c.      Marketing decision support system. 

        d.      data validation 

45.     Dominance, Autonomy and defensive attributes symbolize -------- factors of consumer 
behavior 

        a.      Cultural factors 

        b.      Social factors 

        c.      Personal factors 

        d.      Psychological factors 

46.     Complex buying behavior occurs when 

        a.      significant difference between brands and high involvement exists 

        b.      significant difference between brands and low involvement exists 

        c.      few differences between brands and high involvement exists 
        d.       few difference between brands and low involvement exists 

47.     Complete the process 

Problem recognition, Ned description, --------------, supplier search, ---------- supplier selection, 
order routine specification, performance review. 

        a.      prototype development and proposal association. 

        b.      Prototype development and product specification. 

        c.      Product specification and proposal association. 

        d.      Product specification and commercialization 

48.     ------ is a market coverage strategy in which the company treats the largest market as one 
and does not consider that there are market segments that exhibit uncommon needs 

        a.      Undifferentiated marketing 

        b.       Differentiated marketing 

        c.      concentrated marketing 

        d.      Positioning 

49.     Which of the following statement suits the need family best? 

        a.      those items within a product line that share one of several possible forms of the 
                products 

        b.      the name associated with one or more items in the product line that is used to 
                identify the source or character of the item. 

        c.      The core need that underlines the product family. 

        d.      All the product classes that can satisfy a core need with reasonable effectiveness 

50.     Private labeling is defined as 

        a.      brand owned by manufacturer and promoted directly or indirectly. 

        b.      these are store brands. 

        c.      It is the legal authorization by the trade marked brand owner to allow another 
                company to use its brand for a fee. 
        d.      The practice of using the established brand names of two different companies on 
                the same product. 

51.     Which one of the following is incorrect regarding service differentiation? 

        a.      Supply chain management practices are tools for service differentiation. 

        b.      Image is used as factor differentiate services 

        c.      Competition is an important factor for service differentiation. 

        d.      Service firms can be differentiated on the bases of goods they produce. 

52.     The formula for unit cost calculation is 

        a.      unit cost= variable cost+( fixed cost/ unit sales) 

        b.      Unit cost= (variable cost+ fixed cost)/ unit sales 

        c.      Unit cost= (variable cost* unit sales)/ fixed cost 

        d.      Unit cost=( variable cost* fixed cost)/Unit sales 

53.     Which one of the following do not describe the Initiating the price changes strategies 

        a.      companies reduce their price when they have excess capacity 

        b.      Falling market share in the face of strong competition 

        c.       rising cost of raw materials 

        d.      dominate the market through lower costs 

54.     Variety of products like raw materials, machines, machine tools, equipments, components 
and spares are sold in 

        a.      Consumer goods market 

        b.      Industrial good market 

        c.      Non profit market 

        d.      Government market 

55.     Please mention any one of the following used for transportation of the Oil with a better 
value. 

        a.      Air transportation 
        b.      Water transportation 

        c.      Surface transportation 

        d.      Pipeline 

56.     Example of hypermarket is 

        a.      Tanishq 

        b.      Shoppers stop 

        c.      food world 

        d.      reliance mart 

57.     Read the promotion message and identify the promotion technique 

        ‘ Britannia khao, world cup jao’ 

        a. price promotion 

        b. contest promotion 

        c. Multiple promotions 

        d. Add on promotion 

58.     Diversification is the strategy in which company----------- 

        a.      increases the sales of company’s existing products without modifying it in the  
                existing market. 

        b.      identifies the new markets to sell their existing products. 

        c.      Identifies the existing market to sell their new products. 

        d.      growth through starting up or acquiring businesses outside the company’s current  
                products and markets 

59.     Demographic environment describes the 

        a.      size, location, density and gender. 

        b.      monetary policies 

        c.      interest rate, Inflation, change in income. 

        d.      working women and rise of metro sexual man 
60.      Recurrent information is the data that---------- 

         a.      MIS supplies periodically 

         b.       collected through scanning journals 

         c.       derived for specific problem 

         d.       collected one time only 

                                              PART C (4 marks) 

61.      Company X is operating in FMCG segment. The market share of the   company  and its 
         largest   competitor    are  8%    and  54%    respectively.   If  the  industry     growth     rate  and 
         company   growth       rate  are  24%   and   50   %,  what   is  the  relative  market    share  of  the 
         company? 

         a.       1.4 

         b.       0.14 

         c.       0.014 

         d.       11.4 

62.      If the market is classified on the basis of nature of goods sold then what type of market 
         soaps and detergents represents 

         a.      government market 

         b.       consumer goods market 

         c.      industrial goods market 

         d.      Non profit market 

63.      Café- coffee  day  a  reputed   coffee   chain   in   south   India,   started   its   operation   in   brigade 
         road, Bangalore, in the year 1996. It offers different varieties of the coffee to its existing 
         customers. Today it is having 100 stores in Bangalore. If this paragraph is analyzed on 
         the basis of Igor Ansoff model of product / market expansion which one of the following 
         quadrant it resembles 

         a.      market penetration 

         b.      product development 
        c.       Market development 

        d.       Diversification 

64.     ORG- MARG, AC Neilson and IMRB are 

        a.       Soap manufacturing companies 

        b.       Hair oil manufacturing companies 

        c.       Marketing software development companies 

        d.       marketing research agencies 

65.     Directions:    Mark    A  if  both  the  statements   are  TRUE     and  the  reason   is  a  correct 
        explanation of the statement. Mark B if both the statements are TRUE but the reason is 
        NOT   correct   explanation   of   the   statement.   Mark   C   if   the assertion   is   TRUE   and   the 
        reason is FALSE. Mark D if the assertion is False and the reason is true 

                               Assertion        Reason 
                               Consumer         Spending 
                               spending         pattern 
                               pattern          depends 
                               decides the      upon the 
                               condition of     geographical 
                               economic         places 
                               and natural      where 
                               environment      people live. 

a.      A 

b.      B 

c.      C 

d.      D        a. A 

66.     Match the following 

 Components                  Description 

      1)  Internal           i.      Information 
          record system              about          the 
                                     marketing 
                                     environment 

      2)  Marketing          ii.     Provides 
          intelligence               information     on 
          system                       specific 
                                       marketing 
                                       problem 

      3)  Marketing           iii.     Marketing 
          research                     decision 
          system                       support 
                                       systems 

      4)  Analytical          iv.      Sales 
          Marketing                    information 
          system                       systems 

         a.  1)-iv, 2)-i, 3)- ii, and 4)- iii. 
         b.  1)-iv, 2)- iii, 3)-i  and 4)- ii. 
         c.  1)-iii, 2)-i, 3)- iv and 4)- ii. 
         d.  1)-iii, 2)- iv, 3) –i, and 4)- ii 

67.      Match the following by analyzing Ansoff’s matrix. 

         1. Market penetration              a. New markets and new products. 

         2. Product development             b. New markets and present products 

         3. Market development              c. Present markets and new markets. 

         4. Diversification                 d. Present markets and present products 

         a. 1-a, 2-b, 3-c, 4-d 

         b. 1-d, 2-c, 3-b,4-a 

         c. 1-a, 2-c, 3-d,4-b 

         d. 1-b, 2-c, 3-a, 4-d 

68.      Match the following on the basis of research approaches. 

         1. Observational research          a. skilled moderator led group discussion 

         2. Focus group research            b. data collection by watching. 
        3. Survey research               c. actual purchase reflects consumer preferences. 

        4. Behavioral research           d. use of questionnaire 

        a. 1-d, 2-c, 3-a,4-b 

        b. 1-b, 2-a, 3-d,4-c 

        c. 1-c, 2-b, 3-d,4-a 

        d. 1-c, 2-b, 3-a, 4-d 

69.     Match the following 

        1. Deprived     a. People earn less than Rs 90,000 

        2. Aspires      b. People earn between Rs 200,000 to Rs500, 000 

        3. Seekers      c. People earn between Rs 500,000 and 1,000,000 

        4. Strivers     d. People earn between Rs 90,000 to Rs 200,000 

        a. 1-a, 2-c, 3-d,4-b 

        b. 1-a, 2-d, 3-b,4-c 

        c. 1-b, 2-a, 3-d,4-c 

        d. 1-c, 2-b, 3-a, 4-d 

70.     Match the following on the basis of psychographic segmentation 

        1. Innovators            a. Young, vital and enthusiastic 

        2. Thinkers              b. successful, sophisticated, and active 

        3. Achievers             c. Mature, satisfied, and comfortable 

        4. Experiencers          d. career ad work oriented people 

        a. 1-d, 2-c, 3-a,4-b 

        b. 1-b, 2-d, 3-a,4-c 

        c. 1-b, 2-c, 3-d,4-a 

        d. 1-c, 2-b, 3-a, 4-d 

71.     Match the following 
         1. Convenience goods              a. Washing machine 

        2. Shopping goods                  b. FMCG 

         3. Specialty goods                c. Insurance scheme 

        4. Unsought goods                  d. Digital home theatre. 

         a. 1-b, 2-a, 3-d, 4-c 

        b. 1-a, 2-d, 3-b, 4-c 

         c. 1-c, 2-a, 3-b, 4-d 

         d. 1-d, 2-c, 3-b, 4-a 

72.     Match the following 

         1. Product line length            a. removing the unprofitable products from the product 
                                           line. 

        2. Product line stretching         b. adding more items in the present line 

         3. Product line filling           c. lengthening the product line 

        4. Product line pruning            d. The number of items in the product line 

         a. 1-b, 2-a, 3-d, 4-c 

        b. 1-a, 2-d, 3-b, 4-c 

         c. 1-c, 2-a, 3-b, 4-d 

         d. 1-d, 2-c, 3-b, 4-a 

73.     According to National sample survey 2005-06, Monthly per capita consumption in rural 
         and     urban   areas   is   Rs625.and   Rs1,   171.Similarly   Food   expenditure   in   monthly  per 
         capita consumption in rural and urban areas are  53 % and  40%.respectively. 

        Which one of the economic environment variable we are discussing here 

         a.       interest rate 

        b.       consumer spending pattern 

         c.      inflation 

         d.      Changes in income 
74.      Radio   Indigo,   FM   radio   station   from   Jupiter   capital   venture  operates   in   Bangalore   and 
         Goa,   plays   international   music.   Radio   indigo   targets   youth   segment   who   like   western 
         music. 

         Describe the external environment force we are discussing from this section 

         a.       demographic environment 

         b.       Natural environment 

         c.      technological environment 

         d.      Political environment 

75.      BSNL      offers  prepaid    service  recharge    coupons    in  Rs175,    Rs335,    Rs500,    Rs  1000, 
         Rs2000 and Rs 5000 denominations. 

         What marketing mix is used in the above paragraph? 

         a.       product 

         b.      place 

         c.      price 

         d.       promotion